CSS Exam Current Affairs 2012 Past Papers - CSS Exam Pakistan Old Papers

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2012.

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE PAPER-II
(CURRENT AFFAIRS)


TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.

PART-I (MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)


1) the first constructed barrage of pakistan is
a) jinnah barrage
b) sukkur barrage
c) tunssa barrage
d) none of these

2) where was jesus christ born?
A) iraq
b) jerusalem
c) mecca
d) none of these

3) raw is an abbreviation of
a) radical army wing
b) research and warning
c) research and analysis wing
d) none of these

4) who was the first viceroy of india?
A) lord ripon
b) lord canning
c) lord curzon
d) none of these

5) according to roussean legitimate political authority is based on
a) slavery
b) force
c) social conduct
d) none of these

6) east india company was established in
a) 1603
b) 1602
c) 1600
d) none of these

7) british government sold kashmir to gulab sing in
a) 1846
b) 1845
c) 1843
d) none of these

8) gymmanphobia is the fear of
a) nudity
b) gyms
c) hotels
d) none of these

9) mac moban is the border between
a) india and china
b) india and nepal
c) india an bangladesh
d) none of these

10) places experincing equal impact of an earthquake are called
a) snowlines
b) seismic belts
c) seismic lines
d) none of these

11) which is the deepest ocean in the world
a) arctic
b) atlantic
c) pacific
d) none of these

12) largest airport of the world is
a) newyork airport
b) frankfurt airport
c) dubai airport
d) none of these

13) “wafa” news agency belongs to
a) palestine
b) jordan
c) syria
d) none of these

14) “fbi” of america was established in
a) 1901
b) 1902
c) 1903
d) none of these

15) who was the founder of republican party of usa
a) alexander hamiltion
b) franklin roosevelt
c) george washington
d) none of these

16) who was the first chief minister of baluchistan from may 1972 to february 1973?
A) sher bux murree
b) sardar attaullah mengal
c) nawab akbar bugti
d) none of these

17) who was the first muslim chief of air staff of pakistan?
A) air marshal asghar khan
b) air marshal noor khan
c) air marshal feroz khan
d) none of these

18) which country is the biggest producer of uranium in the world?
A) france
b) south africa
c) canda
d) none of these

19) in pakistan the first martial law was imposed on
a) august 1956
b) september 1956
c) october 1956
d) none of these

20) the fedral government



PART-II




NOTE:
(i) Part-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry equal marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.

Q.1 Evaluate the ignificance of water conflict between India and Pakistan in global perspective of climate change.

Q.2 Discuss the mpact of foreign aid on Pakistan in post 9/11 scenario.

Q.3 Substantiate Pakistan's role in Common wealth.

Q.4 How can the energy crisis of Pakistan be resolved?

Q.5 Discuss issues in the higher educational system vis-a-vis 18th amendment in Pakistan

Q.6 How the corruption be managed in Pakistan?

Q.7 Discuss impact of economic development of China on World Order.

EUROPEAN HISTORY PAST PAPER CSS EXAM PAKISTAN 2009

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR
RECRUITMENT TO POSTS IN BPS-17 UNDER
THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

EUROPEAN HISTORY PAPER 1



TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.

1. By the treaty of Paris (March 1856) warships were forbidden on the
a) Danube
b) Dead Sea
c) Black Sea
d) None of these
2. The peace of Amiens was signed in
a) 1802
b) 1803
c) 1804
d) None of these
3. Truce at Villafranca was signed between France and
a) Germany
b) Russia
c) Austria
d) None of these
4. In 1908 Bosnia and Herzegovina were annexed by
a) Austria
b) Russia
c) Turkey
d) None of these
5. The Treaty of Campo Formio was signed in October
a) 1789
b) 1795
c) 1799
d) None of these
6. The Convention of Gastein (1865) was higly disadvantageous to
a) Austria
b) Prussia
c) France
d) None of these
7. Von Moltke was a Prussian
a) Statesman
b) Foreign Minister
c) General
d) None of these
8. Panslavist ambitions were checked by Congress of Berlin in
a) 1856
b) 1868
c) 1876
d) None of these
9. Walachia and Moldavia were--------------- principalities
a) Syrian
b) Russian
c) Danubian
d) None of these
10. Cavour was to ----------- as Bismarck was to Germany.
a) Austria
b) France
c) Belgium
d) None of these
11. Nichlos 1 was born in 1825 and died in
a) 1855
b) 1885
c) 1915
d) None of these
12. Congress of Laibach was held in
a) 1807
b) 1819
c) 1820
d) None of these
13. The capital of -------- was
a) Hungary
b) Bohemia
c) Hanover
d) None of these
14. Talleyrand was a diplomat from
a) Germany
b) France
c) Austria
d) None of these
15. The Treaty of Fontainebleau was signed in 1807 by spain to join in an attack on
a) Portugal
b) Morocco
c) England
d) None of these
16. The Declaration of The Rights of Man was prefixed to the French constitution of
a) 1791
b) 1792
c) 1793
d) None of these
17. Foundations of the ---------- Republic were laid in 1870
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) None of these
18. Napoleon was born in
a) Elba
b) Corsica
c) St. Helena
d) None of these
19. Social contract was written by
a)Napoleon
b) Voltaire
c) Rousseau
d) None of these
20. Tithe was a tax related to
a) Education
b) Land
c) Business
d) None of these

PART – 2

Q.2 “The French Revolution was precipitated by economic factors and the train which had been laid by finance”. (Guedella). Comment.

Q.3 “O liberty! What crimes are committed in thy name”. (Madam Roland). Comment in the light of “Reign of Terror”.

Q.4 The treaty of tilsit marked the zenith of power of Napoleon in Europe. Discuss.

Q.5 What part did Mazini, Cavour, Garibaldi and Victor Emmanuel play in the history of Italian unification.

Q.6 The Crimean War in a sense was watershed of European History.

Q.7 Discuss the principles underlying the colonial expansion of European Powers in later half of the 19th Century.

Q.8 Write short notes on Two of the following
1) French Revolution of 1830
2) Bismarck
3) Metternich
4) Triple Alliance 1882

PUSHTO PAST PAPER CSS EXAM 2009

PUSHTO 2009

PART I (MCQs)

i. Pakhto Academy, Pekhawar University ke pa kaal ........ ke jora shawe wa.
(a) 1955
(b) 1960
(c) 1950

ii. Da Khushal Khan Khataak mazar pa ........ ke de`.
(a) easoree
(b) chashmay
(c) Akorha Khattak

iii. Ahmed Shah Abdali da ....... mureed wo:
(a) Kaka sahib
(b) Peer Baba (doubt)
(c) Miyan Uamr da sokano`

iv. Da attock Qilla ......... jora kari wa:
(a) Akbar badshah
(b) Shah Jehan (doubt)
(c) Aurangzeb

v. Da Pakhto wrombay (first) novel ..... leekalay de`:
(a) Abdul Akbar Khan Akbar
(b) Fazal Mehmood Mahfay`
(c) Syed Rahat Zakheli`

vi. Khushal Khan khattak pa kaal....... ke wafat shawe woo:
(a) 1701
(b) 1690
(c) 1689

vii. Tareekh Murassah ........... leekaly de`:
(a) dost Muhammad Khan Kamil
(b) Afzal khan khattak
(c) Ashraf khan hijri

viii. Khushal khan khattak da .......... mureed woo:
(a) Bahadur baba
(b) Faqeer Jamil Baig
(c) Kaka sahib

ix. Da mughlo` aw pukhtano ter menza da khyber jang pa kaal ...... ke ikhay shawe woo:
(a) 1690
(b) 1680
(c) 1672 (doubt)

x. Da Khudai khidmatgar tehreek bunyad pa kaal ...... ke ikhay shawee woo:
(a) 1930
(b) 1924
(c) 1929

xi. Ameer-ul-Mutaghazileen da .... laqab de:
(a) samandar khan samandar
(b) saif-ur-rahman salim
(c) hamza shinwari

xii. Da pakhto da adabyato tareekh ..... leekaly de:
(a) Hamaysh khalil
(b) Abdur Rauf benwa(!)
(c) Abdul Hayee habibi

xiii. Sardar abdur rab nishtar pa ...... ke paida shawe woo:
(a) Delhi
(b) lahore
(c) pekhawar (doubt)

xiv. Gold and Guns nomee kitab ......leekalay de:
(a) Abdur rab nishtar (doubt)
(b) khan abdul Qayyum khan
(c) Sahibzada Abdul Qayyum

xv. Da Ghayrat Chagha da ...... kitab de:
(a) Rahmat Shah Sayel
(b) Pareshan khattak
(c) Ajmal khattak

xvi. Da Haji Sahib ter nagzay noom......de:
(a) Abdul Rahim
(b) Fazal Wahid
(c) Abdul Jabbar

xvii. Sardar Abdur rab nishtar pa qabeela......woo:
(a) Kakar
(b) momand
(c) yousafzai

xviii. "The Pathans" nomee kitab...... lekalay de:
(a) Ghani Khan
(b) Alphensatn
(c) Olaf Kero

xix. Da Peer Rokhan khpal noom......woo:
(a) mirza khan ansari
(b) Bayazeed Ansari
(c) Mulla arzanay

xx. Da Ghani khan da wrombani shayree majmo'ame noom.....de:
(a) Da Ghani Kalyat
(b) Panous
(c) Da panjray chaghar

PART II

Q2. (a) Translate the following english paragraph into Pushto:

"Their vices are revenge, envy, avarice, rapacity and obstinacy; on the other hand, they are fond of liberty, faithful to their friends, kind to their dependents, hospitable, brave, hardy, frugal, laborious and prudent; they are less disposed than the nations in their neighbourhood to falsehood, intrigue and deceit."

(b) From the following phrases translate three into English:

i. Let the cat out of the bag.
ii. Make it hot for one.
iii. Leave no stone unturned.
iv. Lick the dust.
v. In the nick of time.

Q3. (a) Translate the following paragraph from Pushto to English:

" Da matalono` da razaegdo amal aksar na-malooma kho dair ler-ghonay de`. Da laka che zyat da komee qissay, tareekhi aw waqyati ya da sa khase` tajrube` pa bina pa wajood ke` ra ghali di, walay zyata nashna khabara pa ke daa da` che zeini mataloona pa bekhi mukhtalifo mausherun aw dauro'na ke yawa maina aw ywa shan istimal laree. da` de` tawarad aw hamrangee pa bina kala kho da khyal ta` rashee che kaide shee che da kalahum insaani wagrhe` da` pohay makhzan yow wee. aw da` dwee bunyadi fikrona da` yaw zaay` ratau ke dalee wee. "

(b). Translate three of the following proverbs from pushto to English:

i. arzaan be` alata na wee, graan be` hikmata na wee.
ii. Armaan ba kray halaka bya ba na maume` adaka.
iii. Che pa tama` da soro shee hagha patay pa mairo shee.
iv. Sa zhranda wrana sa ghanam lamda.
v. dost hagha de` che pa zaan de kha wee.

Q4. Abdul Hameed Baba da pukhto nazuk khayal shayer de`. Da da` pa nazuk khayali khpal tasurat olikay.

Q5. Rahman Baba ta shayer Insaniyet wayee. da hagha kalam pa dagha arhakh leekal okay.

Q6. Da` Khushal Khan Khattak pa qaamee shayri da` hagha da` shayroona pa ranHa ke yo mufasil note olikay.

Q7. Da Ghani Khan da` shayree pa falsafyana arakh khpal khyalat ser gand krHay.

Q8. Da` Pukhto TAPPA da pukhto da jazbatu aw roman ayeena da, khpal nazar wrande krHay.

OR

Da` pukhto danish aw danayi pa MATALOONO ke kHkara da. da misaalona pa zarya behas okhray.

================================================== ===================

International lAW css exam pakistan past paper 2009

INTERNATIONAL LAW - CSS 2009

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box in the answer sheet.

1. One of the modes of acquiring state territory is:
(a) Jurisdicition (b) occupation (c) insurjency (d) Non of these

2. The name of the present secretary general of the UN is:
(a) Kofi Anaan (b) Boutros gali (c) Ban ke Mon (d) Non of these

3. The preamble to the universal declariation on human rights was adopted on:
(a) 12 jan 1949 (b) 10 Dec 1948 (c) 6th Aug 1947 (d) Non of these

4. The right of innocent passage means:
(a) right of a foreign merchant ship to pass un-hindered through the territorial sea of the cost
(b) Not to publicize dangers to navigation in the sea
(c) To over look regulations of marri-time traffic
(d) Non of these

5. The basic frame work for the nature and characteristics of treaties was defined in the:
(a) Vinnea convention on the law of treaties 1969
(b) Geneva connvention on the high seas 1958
(c) Vinnea convention on the law of treaties 1986
(d) Non of these

6. With drawal of recognition is more easily achieved with respect to:
(a) Defact recognition
(b) Collective Recognition
(c) Implied Recognition
(d) Non of these

7. The father of International Law is:
(a) David Dudley field
(b) Hugo Grotius
(c) Geremy bentham
(d) Non of these

8. Internal waters of a state are, such waters which are:
(a) found on the land-ward side of base line from which the territorial sea is measured.
(b) Adjusant to the exculsive fisheries zone.
(c) waters flowing into the high sea's
(d) Non of these

9. The doctrine of open sea was eloborated by:
(a) Blunt schilli
(b) Pufendorf
(c) Grotius
(d) Non of these

10. According to article 3 of the 1982 convention on the law of the sea the breadth of the territorial sea is:
(a) 10 miles
(b) 12 miles
(c) 14 miles
(d) Non of these

11. The term Men of War signifies:
(a) Military personal
(b) A warship
(c) An aircraft carrier
(d) Non of these

12. The number of judges constituting the international court of justice are:
(a) 15
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) Non of these

13. Terra Nullius means:
(a) Island in the sea
(b) No territory
(c) Territory belonging to no state
(d) Non of these

14. The Acroniyum WMD stands for:
(a) Western missile defense
(b) Weapons of mass distruction(c) World metrological Department
(d) Non of these

15. Hot persuit is the principle designed to ensure:
(a) Vessiles voilating rules of coastal state cannot escape punishment by fleeing to high sea's
(b) Capture
(c) Cancellation of Registration
(d) Non of these

16. Piracy, according to law of sea convention 1982 is:
(a) An illegal act by crew of private ship on the high sea's.
(b) An act of sabotage
(c) Act permisible in certain cases
(d) Non of these

17. The general assembly of the UN is :
(a) The most powerful organ
(b) A supervisory body
(c) An elected House
(d) Non of these

18. The charter of the UN is a comprehensive document having:
(a) 112 articles
(b) 111 articles
(c) 108 articles
(d) Non of these

19. One of the amicable means of settling state disputes is:
(a) Concillation
(b) Blockade
(c) War
(d) Non of these

20. The bulk of the rules of International law are derived from:
(a) Judicial decisions
(b) work of publicites
(c) Customs
(d) Non of these

SOCIOLOGY PAST PAPER CSS EXAM PAKISTAN 2009

Federal public service commission
Competitive examination for
Recruitment to posts in BPS-17 under
The federal government, 2009

SOCIOLOGY
TIME ALLOWED Part-I 30 Minutes Maximum Marks 20
Part-II 2 hours & 30 Minutes Maximum marks 80

-------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.2. Discuss the major contributors of Max Weber in understanding the society theoretically.

Q.3. Discuss the term Social Research and explain the important steps of inducting social research.

Q.4. Discuss Migration as a social phenomenon.

Q.5. Define the term “Social Change”. How it occurs in a traditional society? Disucss it in detail.

Q.6. Karl Marx “Theory of Labour” Discuss in detail.

Q.7. Define the term “Social Problem”. Discuss smuggling a social problem in a society.

Q.8. Define the term “Community” and discuss the important characteristics of rural and urban community.

CSS EXAM PAST PAPER PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION 2009

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR
RECRUITMENT TO POSTS IN BPS-17 UNDER
THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

Public Administration

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in appropriate box on the answer sheet. (20)

1.Health and wellness is a currently important work-related value
(a) true
(b) false

2.The cognitive component of an attitude consists of beliefs and values antecedents
(a) true
(b) false

3.The effective component of an attitude is a specific feeling regarding the personal impact of the antecedents.
(a) True
(b) false

4.An attitude results in intended behavior.
(a) true
(b) false

5. Job satisfaction is closely related to organizational commitment and job environment.
(a) true
(b) false

6.A loyalty response to low job satisfaction occurs when an employee passively waits for conditions to improve because of a trend in the organization.
(a) true
(b) false

7.Expectancy can have both positive and negative results for a manager.
(a) true
(b) false

8.The earliest studies of leadership tended to focus on leader behavior
(a) true
(b) false

9.Transactional leadership includes charisma.
(a) true
(b) false

10.Leader behaviors for high performance work teams tend to be charismatic.
(a) true
(b) false

11.One major power that bureaucracy has is simply its staying power.
(a) true
(b) false

12.Implement is the most “hands-on” facet of public administration.
(a) true
(b) false

13.A geographical information system is a location-related computer programme data and maps for a variety of uses.
(a) true
(b) false

14. The most powerful reason for the growing recognition of the global economy is
(a) the growth of international trade groupings and pacts.
(b) that more people are working domestically for foreign employees..
(c) that the major cities of the western world are culturally heterogeneous.
(d) that domestic organization are feeling the impact of international competition.

15. The learned and shared ways of thinking and doing things found among members of a society is known as:
(a) Parochialism
(b) Culture shock
(c) Culture
(d) Ethnocentrism
(e) Domestic multiculturalism

16. Each of the following is a popular dimension of culture except:
(a) Language
(b) Use of space
(c) Religion
(d) Individualism
(e) Time orientation

17. To help combat selective perception, a manager should:
(a) View the situation as others view it
(b) Give more performance feedback to subordinates
(c) Spend more time helping subordinates learn job skills
(d) Gather additional opinions about a situation from others
(e) Increase feedback to subordinates and train them personally

18. Assigning personal attributes to other individuals is known as:
(a) Stereotyping
(b) The halo effect
(c) Selective perception
(d) Projection
(e) Expectancy

19. The key elements of the communication process include all but which of the following:
(a) An interpreter
(b) A receiver
(c) A source
(d) Feedback
(e) Noise

20. Nonverbal communication is:
(a) The acknowledgment of a message and a response to its reception.
(b) Communication through physical gesture
(c) The same as noise
(d) Anything that interferes with the effectiveness of the communication attempt
(e) Often unimportant during interviews.

Q.2. Write a short essay on the intellectual history of Public Administration (20)

Q.3. Bureaucracy and Democrarcy are antithetical.Bureaucracy is hierarchical,elitist,specializing and informed while democracy is communal,pluralist,generalizing and ill informed.Keeping in mind the quantum of expectations in Pakistan and the reality of the civic culture discuss the above statement. (20)

Q.4. Public administration is a broad ranging and amorphous mix of theory and practice.The purpose of public Administration is to frame a superior understanding of government and its relationship with the society it governs,as well as to promote public policies responsive to social needs.Public Administration also institutes managerial practices attuned to effectiveness,efficiencies,and a deeper human requisite of the citizenry.Discuss. (20)

Q.5. How and why governments implement public programmes by hiring the private sector to do work for them.In writting your answer also discuss the concepts of privitization and public private partnership. (20)

Q.6. Domestic public policy is implemented not merely by government but by governments.The administration of a single public policy often involves a meldley of funding sources and public administrators interacting through all the three levels of governments.Please comment on the strenght of inter government relations i.e; financial,legal.political and administrative relationship that exist among the various governments units of aid government in Pakistan. (20)

Q.7. The judicial remedies and accountability for the citizens of the country against the abuse of power has become prevalent in the modren time.What are those remedies? Elaborate. (20)

Q.8. Eplain the system of project planning in the government of Pakistan and how does it extend to the provinces and local governments? (20)

CONSTITUTIONAL LAW CSS EXAM PAST PAPER 2009

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR
RECRUITMENT TO POSTS IN BPS-17 UNDER
THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

CONSTITUTIONAL LAW

TIME ALLOWED:
(PART-I)…………30 MINUTES…………..…..MAXIMUM MARKS:20
(PART-II)…………2 Hours & 30 Minutes……..MAXIMUM MARKS:80

NOTE:
(i) First attempt Part-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 Minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) What is the constitutional title used for the British head of State?

(a)Prime Minister
(b) Crown
(c) Monarch
(d) None of these

(ii) Parliamentary system of UK is the product of:

(a) Rule of Law
(b) Conventions
(c) Prerogations of crown
(d) None of these

(iii) Which Act of parliaments protects the Independence of judiciary in UK?

(a) Bill of Rights
(b) Magna Carta
(c) Act of Settlement
(d) None of these

(iv) The office of the British Prime Minister is the creature of:

(a) Customs
(b) Precedent
(c) Act of Parliament
(d) None of these

(v) The English Common Law is based on:

(a) Statute Law
(b) Precedents
(c) Conventions
(d) None of these

(vi) How many US Presidents actually faced impeachment?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None of these

(vii) The Bill of Rights became part of US constitution in the year:

(a) 1776
(b) 1789
(c) 1791
(d) None of these

(viii) On what date the electors for the election of President are elected under the US Constitution?

(a) 1st Tuesday of November, leap year
(b) 4th November, leap year
(c) Tuesday after 1st Monday of November, leap year
(d) None of these

(ix) An Amendment in the US constitution becomes effective on its approval by the congress and a minimum special number of states which is:

(a) Abstract majority
(b) 2/3 States
(c) ¾ States
(d) None of these

(x) What is the maximum continuous period a person can be president of USA.

(a) 04 years
(b) 08 years
(c) more than 08 years
(d) None of these

(xi) What is term used for upper house under Indian Constitution?

(a) Council of States
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Senate
(d) None of these (Rajiya Sabha)


(xii) The federating units of India are called:

(a) Provinces
(b) Territories
(c) States
(d) None of these

(xiii) Who appoints the governor in India?

(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Parliament
(d) None of these

(xiv) The Indian Government at national level is called?

(a) Federal Governemnt
(b) Central Government
(c) Union Government
(d) None of these

(xv) The Prime Minister of India is:

(a) Elected by Parliament
(b) Elected by upper house
(c) appointed by President
(d) None of these

(xvi) What is the commencing day of Pakistan Constitution 1973?

(a) 1st January 1973
(b) 23rd March 1973
(c) 14th August 1973
(d) None of these

(xvii) Which Article of Pakistan Constitution 1973 deal with ‘Islamic Way of life’?

(a) Article-2
(b)Article-4
(c)Article-37
(d) None of these (Article 31)

(xviii) The Northern Areas of Pakistan are under the control of:

(a) NWFP Government
(b) Azad Jammu & Kashmir Government
(c) Federal Government
(d) None of these

(xix) Article 184 of Constitution of Pakistan 1973 provides for:

(a) Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court
(b) appellate jurisdiction of supreme court
(c) advisory jurisdiction of supreme court
(d) None of these

(xx) What is the ordinary life of a gubernatorial Ordinance under the Constitution of Pakistan 1973 ?

(a) Unlimited
(b) 3 months
(c) 4 months
(d) None of these

PART – II

NOTE:
(i) Part-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions form PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.


Q.2. Discuss the supremacy of British Parliament in its historical context by giving examples from British constitutional history. Are there any practical limitations on its supremacy?

Q.3. What are the source of British Constitution? Explain them with reference to their significance.

Q.4. Discuss in detail the role of Senate in USA?

Q.5. Explain the concept of ‘Due Process of Law’ under US Constitution and compare it with ‘Rule of Law’ in United Kingdom.

Q.6. Discuss the provisions of Pakistan Constitution relating to Human Rights.

Q.7. Explain Federation under the Constitution of India.

Q.8. Explain the system of Droit Administrating in France.

PPLIED MATHEMATICS PAST PAPER CSS EXAM PAKISTAN 2009

PURE MATHEMATICS CSS EXAM PAKISTAN PAST PAPER 2009

CSS EXAM STATISTICS PAST PAPER 2009

CSS EXAM FORESTORY PAST PAPER 2009

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS

IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009.

FORESTRY

TIME ALLOWED: (PART-I) 30 MINUTES, MAXIMUM MARKS: 20
(PART-II) 2 HOURS & 30 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS: 80

NOTE: (i) First attempt PART-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.

PART – I (MCQ)

COMPULSORY

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)
(i) The study of individual and its relationship to the environment is called:
(a) autecology
(b) synecology
(c) ecosystem
(d) None of these

(ii) A forest ecosystem development process, starting from establishment of pioneer species uptil its
climax stage is called:
(a) restoration
(b) fragmentation
(c) succession
(d) None of these

(iii) The inhibition of germination, growth or metabolism of one plant by another through the production of toxic chemical compounds that escape into the environment is called:
(a) mycotrophy
(b) allelopathy
(c) symbiosis
(d) None of these

(iv) Settling down of water in the form of dew, rain, hails or snow is called:
(a) precipitation (b) rainfall
(c) both of these (d) None of these

(v) Hypoxia is the condition in soil where plants experience:
(a) water logging
(b) oxygen deficiency
(c) high concentration of salts
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

(vi) Lopping of trees for animal fodder purpose is called:
(a) grazing
(b) browsing
(c) tethering
(d) coral feeding
(e) None of these

(vii) Pyric factor is important affecting forest growth, it means:
(a) temperature
(b) radiation
(c) nutrients
(d) None of these

(viii) The direction towards which a compass needle points is called:
(a) the true direction of North Pole from the observer
(b) magnetic north
(c) prismatic compass
(d) None of these

(ix) Nutritious stage of plant growth for fodder and forage purpose is:
(a) at early growth stage
(b) seeds are ripened
(c) at first bloom
(d) None of these

(x) One animal unit is a cow having weight of:
(a) 450 kg
(b) 900 kg
(c) 1000 kg
(d) None of these

(xi) The undecomposed plant material present on forest soil surface is called:
(a) mulch
(b) litter
(c) compost
(d) None of these

(xii) Essential oil is a product from some tree leaves, it is called so due to:
(a) its market value
(b) essence
(c) necessarily presence in leaves
(d) None of these

(xiii) Pheromones are synthetic chemicals used:
(a) to enhance cross pollination in vegetation
(b) to attract insect to kill them
(c) to regulate growth
(d) None of these

(xiv) The loss of water through stomata of leaves is called:
(a) evaporation
(b) throughfall
(c) transpiration
(d) stomatal conductance
(e) None of these

(xv) The downward movement of water within the soil profile is called:
(a) infiltration
(b) leaching
(c) percolation
(d) None of these

(xvi) To catch rainfall, hold runoff in a natural stream, divert into adjoining fields downstream and use for the production of forage, is called:
(a) water harvesting
(b) water spreading
(c) erosion control
(d) None of these

(xvii) To leave the range unit ungrazed until after seed maturity so that the better forage plants can build vigor, set seed and thus improve the stand. This system of grazing is called:
(a) nomadic grazing system
(b) rotational grazing system
(c) deferred grazing system
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

(xviii) A long period of time without effective rainfall is known as:
(a) aridity
(b) drought
(c) famine
(d) None of these

(xix) Logging and saw milling corporation is present in:
(a) AJK
(b) Baluchistan
(c) N.W.F.P.
(d) All provinces
(e) None of these

(xx) The animal considered very dangerous in forests and watershed region is:
(a) goat
(b) buffalo
(c) camel
(d) cow
(e) None of these

PART – II

(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.

Q.2. What silvicultural practices are important for improved growth, at what stage and how various environmental factors help/affect those practices? (20)

Q.3. Define research. What is the importance of experimental design in research? Write the main components of a research paper. (20)

Q.4. What is sustainability? What risk factors are involved in long term forestry projects? (20)

Q.5. Differentiate between catchment and watershed. How the range lands in watershed region can be managed to ensure increased quantity and improved quality of water in Pakistan? (20)

Q.6. What are transect and quadrat methods of vegetation survey and what is their usefulness and application? (20)

Q.7. How wildlife play its role in propagation and conservation of vegetation species? What are essential features of wildlife sanctuaries? (20)

Q.8. Write a short note on ANY FOUR of the following: (20)

(i) Phytoremediation
(ii) Bioengineering
(iii) Green house effect
(iv) Forest and plantation
(v) Noise pollution and trees
(vi) Carbon sequestration
(vii) Natural heritage
(viii) Environmental hazards

********************

CSS EXAM BRITISH HISTORY PAST PAPER 2009

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS

IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009.

BRITISH HISTORY - PAPER I

TIME ALLOWED: (PART-I) 30 MINUTES, MAXIMUM MARKS: 20
(PART-II) 2 HOURS & 30 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS: 80

NOTE: (i) First attempt PART-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.

PART – I (MCQ)

COMPULSORY

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) WILLIUM-III and MARY ascended to the throne in:
(a) February, 1688
(b) February, 1788
(c) February, 1889
(d) None of these

(ii) The Book, “England under the Stuarts” has been written by:
(a) G.N. CLARK
(b) G.M. TRAVELYAN
(c) WINSTON CHURCHIL
(d) None of these

(iii) The United Kingdom of Great Britain came into existence on:
(a) 1st March, 1707
(b) 1st May, 1707
(c) 1st September, 1707
(d) None of these

(iv) Georg-I remained on the throne from:
(a) 1714 – 27
(b) 1727 – 60
(c) 1760 – 83
(d) None of these

(v) The seven years war, 1756 – 63 was fought in:
(a) Europe, Africa & Far East
(b) North America, Australia & Europe
(c) Europe, North America & India
(d) None of these

(vi) The Book, “Constitutional History of Modern Britain” has been written by:
(a) Winston Churchill
(b) Staneley Lanepoole
(c) V.A. Smith
(d) None of these

(vii) The founder of the theory of ‘English Conservatism” was:
(a) Edmund Burke
(b) Robert Walpole
(c) Pitt, the Younger
(d) None of these

(viii) The book, “England and French Revolution” was written by:
(a) Dickens
(b) Keats
(c) Brown
(d) None of these

(ix) In 1800, England’s union took place with:
(a) Scotland
(b) Ireland
(c) Wales
(d) None of these

(x) The supreme organizer of the Methodist Movement was:
(a) John Wesley
(b) Pitt, the Elder
(c) Napoleon Bonaparte
(d) None of these

(xi) Sir Robert Western produced the Book, titled:
(a) Discourse on Revolution
(b) Discourse on War
(c) Discourse on Husbandry
(d) None of these

(xii) “The Power Loome” was invented by:
(a) Edmund Cartwright
(b) John Kay
(c) George Stephenson
(d) None of these

(xiii) George-IV married Queen:
(a) Victoria
(b) Anne
(c) Caroline
(d) None of these

(xiv) Who has been called as “The Sailor King”?
(a) George-II
(b) George-III
(c) George-IV
(d) None of these

(xv) Queen Victoria was the daughter of:
(a) Duke of Acquitainne
(b) Duke of Kent
(c) Duke of Salisbury
(d) None of these

(xvi) The number of children of Queen Victoria was:
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) None of these

(xvii) Crimean War took place from:
(a) 1837 – 42
(b) 1844 – 50
(c) 1855 – 60
(d) None of these

(xviii) Durham Report came in:
(a) 1830
(b) 1837
(c) 1844
(d) None of these

(xix) Charles Kingsley is the best known clerical writer on:
(a) French Revolution
(b) Industrial Revolution
(c) Glorius Revolution
(d) None of these

(xx) Oscar Wilde was a:
(a) General
(b) Historian
(c) Poet
(d) None of these

PART – II

(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be
considered.

Q.2. The GLORIOUS REVOLUTION of 1688 ushered in a new era of change, liberty and participation of the people in the decision-making process, a view held by the historians. Make a critical evaluation of it. (20)

Q.3. What were the effects of the French Revolution on the Life and Thought of 18th century England? (20)

Q.4. How the AMERICAN WAR OF INDEPENDENCE affect the British Colonial System and to what extent it was responsible for the DE-COLONIZATION process? (20)

Q.5. What were the Positive and Negative Dimensions of the INDUSTRIAL REVOLUTION? What is your personal view that whether it was boon or bane for the common man? (20)

Q.6. Produce an analytical essay on the Eastern Question and what was the British Policy towards it? (20)

Q.7. What do you know about the ANGLO-FRENCH WAR, 1793 – 1815 and its AFTER-EFFECTS? (20)

Q.8. Write analytically about the Policy and Personality of Queen VICTORIA? (20)

********************

CHEMISTRY CSS EXAM PAST PAPER 2009

EUROPEAN HISTORY PAPERS CSS EXAM PAST PAPER 2009

---

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS

IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009.

EUROPEAN HISTORY, PAPER - I

TIME ALLOWED: (PART-I) 30 MINUTES, MAXIMUM MARKS: 20
(PART-II) 2 HOURS & 30 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS: 80

NOTE: (i) First attempt PART-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.

PART – I (MCQ)

COMPULSORY

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)
(i) By the Treaty of Paris (March 1856) warships were forbidden on the _________.
(a) Danube
(b) Dead Sea
(c) Black Sea
(d) None of these

(ii) The Peace of Amiens was signed in __________.
(a) 1802
(b) 1803
(c) 1804
(d) None of these

(iii) Truce at Villafranca was signed between France and __________.
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Austria
(d) Turkey

(iv) In 1908, Bosnia and Herzegovina were annexed by _________.
(a) Austria
(b) Turkey
(c) Russia
(d) None of these

(v) The Treaty of Campo Formino was signed in October ________.
(a) 1789
(b) 1795
(c) 1799
(d) None of these

(vi) The Convention of Gastein (1865) was highly disadvantageous to __________.
(a) Austria
(b) Prussia
(c) France
(d) None of these

(vii) Von Moltke was a Prussian _________.
(a) Statesman
(b) Foreign Minister
(c) General
(d) None of these

(viii) Panslavist ambitions were checked by congress of Berlin in _________.
(a) 1856
(b) 1868
(c) 1876
(d) None of these

(ix) Wallachia and Moldavia were ____________ principalities.
(a) Syrian
(b) Russian
(c) Danubian
(d) None of these

(x) Cavour was to _________ what Bismark was to Germany.
(a) Austria
(b) France
(c) Belgium
(d) None of these

(xi) Nichlos I was born in 1825 and died in __________.
(a) 1855
(b) 1885
(c) 1915
(d) None of these

(xii) Congress of Laibach was held in __________.
(a) 1807
(b) 1819
(c) 1820
(d) None of these

(xiii) The capital of __________ was Prague.
(a) Hungary
(b) Bohemia
(c) Hanover
(d) None of these

(xiv) Talleyrand was a diplomat from ___________.
(a) Germany
(b) France
(c) Austria
(d) None of these

(xv) The Treaty of Fontainebleau was signed in 1807 by Spain to join in an attack on ________.
(a) Portugal
(b) Morocco
(c) England
(d) None of these

(xvi) The Declaration of the Rights of Man was prefixed to the French constitution of _______.
(a) 1791
(b) 1792
(c) 1793
(d) None of these

(xvii) Foundations of the __________ Republic were laid in 1870.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth

(xviii) Napolean was born in _______________.
(a) Elba
(b) Corsica
(c) St. Halena
(d) None of these

(xix) Social contract was written by ____________.
(a) Napolean
(b) Voltaire
(c) Rousseau
(d) None of these

(xx) Tithe was a tax related to ___________.
(a) Education
(b) Land
(c) Business
(d) None of these

PART – II

(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.

Q.2. “The French Revolution was precipitated by economic factors and the train which had been laid by finances”. (Guedalla). Comment. (20)

Q.3. “O Liberty! What crimes are committed in thy name”. (Madam Roland). Comment in the light of Reign of Terror. (20)

Q.4. The Treaty of Tilsit marked the zenith of power of Napolean in Europe. Discuss. (20)

Q.5. What part did Mazzani, Cavour, Gaxibaldi and Victor Emmenual play in the history of Italian unification. (20)

Q.6. The Crimean War in a sense was watershed of European history. (20)

Q.7. Discuss the principles underlying the colonial expansion of European Powers in later half of the 19th century. (20)

Q.8. Write short notes on ANY TWO of the following: (20)
(i) French Revolution of 1830.
(ii) Bismark
(iv) Metternich
(v) Triple Alliance 1882

********************

GEOLOGY CSS EXAM PAST PAPER 2009

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS

IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009.

GEOLOGY, PAPER-I

TIME ALLOWED: (PART-I) 30 MINUTES, MAXIMUM MARKS: 20
(PART-II) 2 HOURS & 30 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS: 80

NOTE: (i) First attempt PART-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.

PART – I (MCQ)

COMPULSORY

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) Which of the following is a part of the definition of a mineral?
(a) a liquid that may become solid
(b) man-made
(c) definite chemical composition
(d) unorganized structure
(e) All of these

(ii) Which of the following minerals are arranged in order of increasing hardness?
(a) talc, apatite, corundum, diamond
(b) topaz, quartz, fluorite, corundum
(c) talc, quartz, calcite, diamond
(d) quartz, topaz, diamond, fluorite
(e) fluorite, calcite, gypsum, talc

(iii) How do the crystal structures of micas and feldspars differ from each other?
(a) feldspars are framework silicates, micas are double chain silicates
(b) feldspars are double chain silicates, micas are sheet silicates
(c) micas and feldspars have the same crystalline structure
(d) feldspars are single chain silicates, micas are double chain silicates
(e) micas are sheet silicates, feldspars are framework silicates

(iv) “Sima” is a general term used to refer to:
(a) rocks of the ocean basins
(b) rocks of the continents
(c) None of these
(d) all rocks that compose Earth’s crust
(e) rocks that compose the crust of terrestrial planets

(v) Which of the following parameters influences the viscosity of magma?:
(a) temperature of the magma
(b) oxygen content of the magma
(c) depth of the magma beneath Earth’s surface
(d) quantity of minerals in the magma
(e) all of these

(vi) The Continuous Series of Bowen’s Reaction Series is composed of minerals.
(a) with different chemical compositions but the same mineral structures
(b) with different chemical compositions and different mineral structures
(c) with similar chemical compositions and different mineral structures
(d) with similar chemical compositions and similar mineral structures
(e) None of these

(vii) Plutonic igneous rocks always have:
(a) olivine, calcium feldspar, pyroxene
(b) amphibole, sodium feldspar, biotite
(c) quartz, muscovite, potassium feldspar
(d) phaneritic texture
(e) None of these

(viii) Weathering processes:
(a) only affect igneous rocks
(b) only affect sedimentary rocks
(c) affect all rocks at Earth’s surface
(d) do not adversely affect rocks
(e) cannot be observed directly at Earth’s surface.

(ix) Mud cracks preserved in sedimentary rocks:
(a) are indicative of arid environments characterized by occasional rain
(b) occur only in rain forests
(c) occur whenever plants germinate in rocks
(d) have never been observed in nature

(x) Which of the following lists is arranged in order from lowest to highest grade of metamorphic rock?
(a) gneiss, slate, schist, phyllite
(b) gneiss, schist, phyllite, slate
(c) slate, gneiss , phyllite, schist
(d) slate, phyllite, schist, gneiss
(e) phyllite, gneiss, slate, schist

(xi) The asthenosphere is:
(a) that portion of Earth where rocks behave as brittle solids
(b) that portion of Earth where rocks behave as plastic solids
(c) that portion of Earth where rocks behave as fluids
(d) that portion of Earth where rocks can be found
(e) None of these

(xii) Which of the following is associated with continent-continent convergent plate boundaries?
(a) explosive volcanism
(b) andesite volcanism
(c) large, damaging earthquakes
(d) volcanic mountain chain
(e) All of these

(xiii) An example of a convergent plate boundary is:
(a) the Ouachita Mountains
(b) the Appalachian Mountains
(c) the Himalaya Mountains
(d) the Cascade Mountains
(e) All of these

(xiv) The strike of a layer is:
(a) the angle at which that layer intercepts a horizontal surface
(b) the degree to which the layer has compressed during mountain building
(c) a line formed by the intersection of the layer with the Earth’s surface

(xv) An anticline is a structure in which:
(a) the oldest rock layers are located at the top of the structure
(b) the rock layers dip away from the axis of the structure
(c) rock layers are down warped
(d) All of these

(xvi) The V-shaped outcrop pattern of a plunging syncline will:
(a) be tilted
(b) close in the direction of plunge
(c) open in the direction of plunge
(d) not be observed
(e) point toward the axis

(xvii) Which of the following is not a feature of an anticline?
(a) youngest rocks on the flanks
(b) oldest rocks near the axis
(c) layers dip toward the axis
(d) upwarped rock layers
(e) All of these

(xviii) Which of the following is not a principle used in relative dating?
(a) the Principle of Superposition
(b) the Principle of Original Horizontality
(c) the Principle of Faunal Succession
(d) the Principle of Cross-Cutting Relationships
(e) The Theory of Evolution

(xix) What is the half-life of a radioactive element?
(a) the time required for one-half of a given quantity of the element to decay to its daughter element
(b) the time required for all of the radioactive element to decay to its daughter element
(c) half of the time required for a given quantity of the element to decay to its daughter element
(d) the time required for the radioactive element to decay half of the time
(e) if you observe a radioactive element, half the time it decays, half the time it doesn’t

(xx) The Principle of Faunal Succession states that:
(a) fossils preserved in rock layers are less complex in older rocks
(b) the Theory of Evolution is proven by the succession of fossils observed in rocks
(c) the fossil record of life proves that life has succeeded on Earth
(d) it is unlikely that life could have succeeded on other planets
(e) None of these

PART – II

(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.

Q.2. How many Tectonic Plate Boundaries are found? Describe them briefly with emphasis to Indian Plate. (20)

Q.3. Describe Volcanic processes in detail with emphasis to volcanic activity in Indus and Balochistan Basins. (20)

Q.4. What do you understand with rock failure theory? Describe various features result due tectonic forces. (20)

Q.5. What importance has micro fossils in stratigraphy? Give the Classification of Phylum Sarcodina up to Family level. (20)

Q.6. Describe the succession (Various Formations) of Mesozoic Era from Salt Range. (20)

Q.7. Describe principal types of metamorphic rocks in details. (20)

Q.8. Define/describe briefly the following terms: (20)
(i) Horst and Graben Fault
(ii) Range Fossils
(iii) Law of superposition
(iv) Lithosphere
(v) Type section
(vi) Continental Rise
(vii) Disconformity
(viii) Jhlum Group
(ix) Alluvial Fan
(x) Jasper
(xi) Moh’s Scale
(xii) Differential Weathering
(xiii) Primary structures
(xiv) Meandering Stream
(xv) Detritus Rocks
(xvi) Geosyncline
(xvii) Petrifaction
(xviii) Panel Diagram
(xix) Transform Fault
(xx) Graded Bedding

*********************

LAW PAPERS CSS EXAM PAST PAPER 2009

---

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS

IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009.

LAW, PAPER - I

TIME ALLOWED: (PART-I) 30 MINUTES, MAXIMUM MARKS: 20
(PART-II) 2 HOURS & 30 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS: 80

NOTE: (i) First attempt PART-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.

PART – I (MCQ)

COMPULSORY

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) “Mesne Profits” of property means the profits:
(a) received by a mortgagee from the mortgaged property
(b) received by the person in wrongful possession from the property wrongfully possessed by him
(c) received by a bailee during the period the property was in his possession under the contract of bailment
(d) None of these

(ii) A suit for the recovery of an immovable property should be filed in the court within local limits of whose jurisdiction the:
(a) plaintiff resides
(b) cause of action has arisen
(c) defendant resides
(d) None of these

(iii) A filed a suit against B for the recovery of price of the cow he sold to B. In reaction to such suit B filed a suit against A for the recovery of the price of the cow he paid to A. The B’s suit can be termed as:
(a) Interpleader suit
(b) Counter Claim
(c) Set-off
(d) None of these

(iv) A minor can sue through his:
(a) Guardian
(b) Next Friend
(c) Guardian ad litem
(d) None of these

(v) Which of the following modes of execution of a decree for restitution of conjugal rights is not lawful:
(a) attachment of immovable property
(b) attachment movable property
(c) forcibly taking the wife to her husband’s house
(d) None of these

(vi) A suit for compensation for wrongs to movable property should be filed in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction:
(a) the wrong was done
(b) the defendant resides
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) None of these

(vii) A minor can be sued through his:
(a) Guardian
(b) Next Friend
(c) Guardian ad litem
(d) None of these

(viii) Jamal, a 17 years old millionaire and thus a minor under the law, agrees to buy Bilal’s house for “a reasonable price.” They reduce the agreement to writing and both sign. Bilal and Jamal have:
(a) a valid contract
(b) a voidable contract
(c) no contract
(d) None of these

(ix) Salim, a 14 years old, offers to cut Shahid’s grass for Rs.400/-. Shahid replies “If you include some hedge trimming I accept.” Salim walks away. Shahid then says, “never mind, I accept for Rs.400/-.” Salim keeps walking. There is:
(a) an oral contract at Rs. 400/-
(b) a voidable contract
(c) an offer from Shahid
(d) None of these

(x) Salman states to Jamal who is only 16 years old “I would not sell my car for less than Rs.5,000/-.” Jamal says, “I accept.” Under the Contract Act:
(a) there is an offer and acceptance and thus a valid contract
(b) the contract is voidable on the option of Jamal
(c) there is no contract
(d) None of these

(xi) Noman offers to sell his car to Sardar for Rs.200,000/-. Sardar says “Is that negotiable?” Noman says “No.” Sardar then says, “Well, I’ll take it for Rs. 200,000/-.” What has happened?
(a) Sardar has accepted Noman’s offer
(b) Sardar has made a new offer
(c) Sardar has rejected Noman’s offer under the mirror image rule
(d) None of these

(xii) A and B are negotiating over the price of a used car. A tells B that he can purchased the car for Rs.400,000/-. B tells A that “I agree if you replace the tyres.” Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) B’s acceptance is qualified and incomplete
(b) B has made a counter offer
(c) B has made A conditional acceptance
(d) None of these

(xiii) When an offer can only be accepted by the performance of the person to whom the offer is made, is characteristic of:
(a) bilateral contracts
(b) quasi contracts
(c) implied contracts
(d) None of these

(xiv) Kala Khan offers to sell Baboo Bashir his motorcycle at some time in the future. Baboo Bashir accepts. Is there a valid contract?
(a) probably not, the terms are not definite
(b) Probably so
(c) definitely not because the acceptance was invalid
(d) None of these

(xv) In a tort which is actionable per se the plaintiff has to prove:
(a) the commission of the tortous act as well as resulting damage
(b) the commission of the tortous act only
(c) the commission of the tortous act resulting damage and ill-well on the part of the defendant
(d) None of these

(xvi) Injuria Sine Damnum means:
(a) damage without infringement of a legal right
(b) Infringement of a legal right only
(c) Infringement of a legal right without any damage
(d) None of these

(xvii) Publication of a verbal defamatory statement necessitates that it should have been:
(a) repeated in a gathering of 10%
(b) published in a national news paper
(c) known to a third person
(d) None of these

(xviii) Under the rule of Vicarious Liability:
(a) a company is liable for the wrongful acts of its directors
(b) only a master is liable for the wrongful acts of his servant
(c) both A & B
(d) None of these

(xix) Which of the following is not a remedy in an action for tort?
(a) Injunction
(b) fine
(c) damage
(d) None of these

(xx) A right in personum is the right which is?
(a) available against the world at large
(b) not available against a particular individual
(c) not the creation of a contract
(d) None of these

PART – II

(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FIVE questions from PART-II selecting at least ONE question from EACH SECTION. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.

SECTION – I (The Code of Civil Procedure)

Q.2. In which of the following circumstances a High Court cannot call for the record of a case for Revision, which has been decided by a subordinate court? (16)
(a) Where the subordinate court has failed to exercise a jurisdiction vested in it?
(b) Where the subordinate court has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it?
(c) Where the subordinate court has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it and one of the parties to that case who has a right of appeal has failed to prefer an appeal?
(d) Where the subordinate court has acted in the exercise of a jurisdiction vested in it illegally are with material irregularity?
Which of the above statements is correct? Support your choice with arguments and state the
relevant principal of law.

Q.3. Discuss and differentiate between res judicata and unilateral res-subjudice by giving examples. (16)

Q.4. Which of the following of a ground for appeal to the High Court from a decree passed in appeal by a District Court? (16)
(a) the decision of the District Court being contrary to the procedure provided by the Civil Court Ordinance (II of 1962);
(b) the District Court having exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it;
(c) the decision of the District Court being contrary to the procedure provided by the Code of Civil Procedure (V of 1908);
(d) All of the above.
Which of the above statements is correct? Support your choice with arguments and state the relevant principal of law.

SECTION – II (The Contract Act)

Q.5. One evening while shifting through your “junk mail”, you see an advertisement in a catalogue distributed by the local computer store advertising a pocket PC that you wish to buy. The PC usually sells for Rs.30,000/-, but the catalogue price is Rs.20,000/-. Next morning you go to the store with Rs.20,000/- to buy the PC, where you are told that the price in the catalogue is wrong, but you can buy it for Rs.30,000/-. Can not you insist to buy the PC for Rs.20,000/-? Why or why not? Discuss in detail by referring to the relevant provisions of law. (16)

Q.6. Discuss and differentiate between bilateral and unilateral contract by giving examples. (16)

Q.7. At a meeting of coin collectors, Sulman offers his entire coin collection to Bilal for Rs.25,000/-. Bilal, a more wise collector than Salman, knows that the collection is really worth about Rs.40,000/-. The next day, Bilal posts a letter to Salman accepting the offer, enclosing a Bank cheque for Rs.25,000/-. That evening, Bilal received a phone call from Sulman, saying that the offer to sell the collection for Rs.25,000/- was withdrawn. Bilal replied “You cannot revoke your offer! I have already accepted it. I
posted you a Bank cheque Rs.25,000/- at 2 o’clock this afternoon.” Salman then told Bilal that he had already sold the collection to another collector for Rs.30,000/-. Can Bilal sue Slaman? Why or why not? Discuss in detail by referring to the relevant provisions of law. (16)

SECTION – III (Law of Torts)

Q.8. The “Sach Khabrain” is a programme of political comment and news produced by National Cables, a private television company that broadcasts weekly. Last week’s programme included a feature on Raja Farman an MPA of Lunda Mastan, a rural constituency in the west of Punjab. The feature
consisted of a short ‘news-item’ read by a presenter as follows:
“And now startling news of Raja Farman MPA! Lunda Mastan police have confirmed that they have interviewed Raja Farman in connection with allegations of un-lawful stocking of wheat on his farm. Raja Farman was last night unavailable for comment”
Global Cables have now received a letter from Raja Farman’s lawyer stating that he intends to bring an action for defamation. The letter points out that while the police had indeed interviewed Raja Farman in connection with an un-lawful stocking of wheat on his farm, the subject of the investigation had been one of Raja Farman’s employees, not the MPA himself, and no charges had been brought. Advise those responsible for the broadcast. (16)

Q.9. Discuss and differentiate between torts actionable per se and torts which are not actionable per se by giving examples? (16)

Q.10. Dildar is trying to sell mobile phones and offers a free gift for those who attend his presentations. Shamshad and Noshad decide to go to attend the presentation. The invitation to the show states that ‘all guests are respectfully required to remain in the seminar room for the entire presentation’. Half way through the show Shamshad tries to leave the room but is told that he cannot leave until the end. Noshad is happy with the show but is offended when he later learns that he could not have left if he
had wanted to.

Meanwhile Dildar jokingly slaps Shamshad on the shoulder telling him that he really will enjoy himself if he stays. Shamshad calls Dildar a corrupt cheat and laughs towards him. Dildar retaliates by hitting Shamshad and then locking him in a storeroom until the end of the show.

On being released Shamshad grabs his free gift (which has his name on it) but Dildar grabs it back saying that Shamshad cannot have it until he apologizes.

Discuss the liabilities of Dildar and Shamshad.

********************

PHILOSOPHY CSS EXAM PAST PAPER 2009

css exam past paper urdu 2009 part 3

CSS EXAM PAKISTAN URDU PAST PAPER 2009 PART 2

CSS EXAM URDU PAST PAPER 2009 PART 1

ARABIC CSS EXAM PAST PAPER 2009

GEOGRAPHY CSS EXAM PAST PAPER 2009

Federal public service commission

Competitive examination for
Recruitment to posts in BPS-17 under
The federal government, 2009
Geography Paper-1

TIME ALLOWED Part-I 30: Minutes Maximum Marks 20
Part-II: 2 hours & 30 Minutes Maximum marks 80

Part – I ( MCQ)
(COMPULSORY)

Q.1. select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the answer sheet.(20)


1.The earths inner core is composed mostly of:

a)solid simatic rock
b)solid iron nickel
c)liquid iron and nickel
d)none of these

2. ketabatic winds are produced by:
a) pressure gradient
b) gravity
c) adiabatic cooling of ascending air
d) none of these

3.The distinguishing difference between the asthenosphere and lithosphere is their:

a)density
b)degree of rigidity
c)chemical composition
d)none of these

4.The mean velocity of the earth in its orbit is about:

a)50,000 mi per hour
b)66,600 mi per hour
c)95,000 mi per hour
d)none of these

5.The mean distance between the earth and sun is about:

a)90 million miles
b)93 million miles
c)95 million miles
d)None of these

6. The prime meridian is referred to as the:

a)Meridian of Greenwich
b)Meridian of East
c)Meridian of West
d)none of these

7. The equatorial Mercator is the only one of all known projections on which all Rhumb lines are true:

a)straight lines
b)semi-circles
c)triangles
d)none of these

8. The arctic circle is at:

a)23 ½ N lat
b)45 N lat
c)66 ½ N lat
d)none of these

9. The vernal equinox occurs on:

a) March 20
b) june 21
c) September 23
d)none of these

10. The percentage of radiant energy reflected back by a surface is termed the:

a)Albedlo
b)Al-Nino
c) La-Nino
d) none of these


11. Over the equatorial bough of low pressure lying roughly between 5 N and 5 S latitude is the equatorial belt of variable winds and calms, or the:

a)Cyclone
b)Doldrums
c)Westerlies
d) none of these

12. The term humidity simply refers to the degree to which water vapour is present in the:

a)ground
b)air
c)vegetation
d)None of these

13. Advection fog results from the movement of warm moist air over a:

a)cold ground surface
b)hot ground surface
c)semi-hot ground surface
d)None of these

14. Sheet as the term is used in the united states consists of pellets of ice produced from freezing of:

a)rain
b) snow
c) wind
d)None of these

15.Radiation coming from the sun is:

a)long wave
b)short wave
c)medium wave
d)None of these

16.The hurricane or typhoon develops over oceans in latitudes:

a)8 to 15 N and S
b)20 to 35 N and S
c)40 to 60 N and S
d)None of these

17. Troposphere is the:

a) Lowermost atmosphere layer
b) The middle atmosphere layer
c)Highest atmosphere layer
d)None of these

18.The Gulf Stream in the Atlantic Ocean is a:

a) Cold Ocean Current
b) Warm ocean current
c) semi-cold ocean current
d)none of these

19. The word peneplain is given to a land surface of:

a) joint relief
b) sharp relief
c) no relief
d)None of these

20. The coriolis force is produced by:

a) earth rotation
b) wind action
c)water action
d)None of these

Attempt only four questions and each question contain 20 marks
Q.2. Describe the factors contributing to the origin of ocean currents. Also describe the Ocean Currents of the Atlantic Ocean bringing about their effect on the surrounding area?

Q.3. Describe the internal structure of the earth in detail giving dimentions, mineral composition and physical properties. What type of evidence is used to obtain this information? What tempratures and pressures may be expected at the earth's centre?

Q.4. Write in detail on the action of the river in its youth, maturity, and old age.

Q.5. Write an essay on earthquake.

Q.6. Wind produces a variety of interesting sequential landforms both erosional and depositional'. Discuss.

Q.7. In what way does the wet, monsoon-dominated climate of southern Asiatic coasts (Am) differ from that close to the equator(aj). Discuss in detail.

Q.8. What is the distinction between large-scale, medium-scale and small-scale maps? Explain by giving examples

BALOCHI CSS EXAM PAST PAPER 2009 PART 3

BALOCHI CSS EXAM PAST PAPER 2009 PART 2

BALOCHI CSS EXAM PAPST PAPER 2009 PART 1

MERCANTILE LAW PAPER CSS EXAM PAKISTAN PAST PAPER 2009

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS IN BPS-17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009

MERCANTILE LAW

TIME ALLOWED: (PART-I) 30 MINUTES MAXIMUM MAMKS:20

(PART-II) 2 HOURS & 30 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS:80
NOTE: (i) First attempt PART-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back
after 30 minutes. (ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.

.................................................. ...................................

PART-I(MCO) (COMPULSORY)

Q.I. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet.

(i) Select the correct answer:
(a) Promisee and Offeree are one and same party
(b) Offeree is a party who propose an agreement while promisee accepts it
(c) None of these

(ii) Every agreement forbidding marriage of any adult person is void except of a minor:
(a) Yes (b) No (c) Partly correct (d) None of these

(iii) Can a contract executed in Saudi Arabia be enforced in courts in Pakistan?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) None of these

(iv) The effect of coercion on a contract is that the contract becomes:
(a) void (b) voidable (c) valid (d) None of these

(v) The members of partnership carrying out business of banking must not exceed:
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 50 (d) None of these

(vi) The minimum number of members required for forming private company is:
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) None of these

(vii) The minimum number of members required for forming public company is:
(a) 7 (b) 50 (c) 5 (d) None of these

(viii) After its incorporation, the ordinary General Meeting of a company must be held within:
(a) One year (b) the year of incorporation
(c) Eighteen months from the date of incorporation (d) None of these

(ix) What type of tax is referred to in the sale of Goods Act, 1930?
(a) Income tax (b) Wealth tax (c) Customs duty
(d) Sales tax (e) None of these

(x) The carrier holds the goods in transit as:
(a) Trustee (b) Agent (c) Bailee (d) None of these


(xi) For how much days, a promissory note is entitled to days of grace to be at maturity when it is not
expressed to be either payable on demand or otherwise?
(a) 30 days (b) 15 days (c) 3 days (d) None of these

(xii) A promissory note is at maturity on Sunday, being public holiday. Whether such promissory note will be deemed to be due on: (a) the next preceding business day (b) The next succeeding business day (c) None of these

(xiii) Can a minor become a payee of a negotiable instrument?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) Not himself but his guardian

(xiv) Life Insurance Policy cannot be called in question by an insurer on the ground of inaccurate or false immaterial statement made in the proposal for insurance after:
(a) one year (b) two years (c) three years (d) None of these

(xv) Willfully making statement false in any document required under Insurance Act. 1938, shall be punishable with imprisonment upto:
(a) five years (b) four years (c) three years
(d) fine only (e) None of these

(xvi) Whether a minor can be appointed as nominee to Life Insurance Policy?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) His guardian only (d) None of these

(xvii) Caveat emptor:
(a) is a person who institutes pre-emption suit
(b) is seller who discloses defects in the goods being sold
(c) is the buyer who is supposed to be aware of the suitability of the goods (d) is owner of an empty cave (e) None of these

(xviii) Penalty provided for driving uninsured vehicle is:
(a) imprisonment upto 5 years and fine upto Rs. 1000/- or both
(b) imprisonment upto 1 year and fine upto Rs. 100/- or both
(c) Imprisonment upto 3 months or fine upto Rs. 500/- or with both
(d) fine upto Rs. 10000/- only
(e) none of these

xix) Can a compoundable criminal case be referred to arbitration?
(a) Yes (b) No (c) None of these as only civil matters can be referred to

xx) Within how much period, the arbitrators are legally required to make their award after entering on the reference?

(a) one month (b) two months (c) three months
(d) four months (e) None of these

PART - II

NOTE:
(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.


Q.2. a) All contracts are agreements but all agreements are not contracts. Please justify. (10)

b) Give five examples of such agreements which are declared to be void under the contract Act, 1872. ' (10)

Q.3 a) When will consent of a party to a contract be deemed to have been caused by coercion? (10)

b) Whether threat to commit suicide by. husband will amount to coercion against wife in a contract between them? Comment. (10)

Q.4 a) A and B contract to marry each other. Before the time fixed for the marriage, A goes mad. What type of contract it becomes? (10)

b) (i) Can A, who is pleader, recover fee from his client B, when there was no express agreement as to the remuneration for the services rendered? Justify your reply. (5)
(ii) A, gratuitously saves B's property from fire. Is A entitled to any compensation for it from
B? (5)

Q.5 a) Jewellery was pledged with a money lender as security. The lender gave it to his wife
for putting it on a marriage. While returning from the ceremony, she was attacked by dacoits
and robbed of it. Was the money lender liable for making good the loss to the loanee after such
incident? Comment. (10)

b) What are the rights of the Pawnee in respect of the thing pledged? (10)

Q.6 What statutory restrictions are imposed on the alteration of articles of association of a company? (20)


Q.7 a) What remedies are available to a buyer when the seller delivers him goods less than/or more than the quantity contracted? (10)

b) A purchased a pole for his carriage from B, While A was driving the pole due to a latent defect, broke and the horses got frightened and injured. Is any remedy available to A in such a case? Comment" (10)


Q.8 a) In what cases, a party to the arbitration agreement may appoint his own appointed arbitrator to act as sole arbitrator in the reference? (10)

b) Define the following: (10)
(i) Drawee (ii) Payee (iii) Accommodation Bills (iv) Blank instrument (v) Cross cheque

zoology css exam past paers 2009

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2008.

Zoology I

SECTION I

Solve 2 questions from each section. Total of four questions.


Q 1. a : Write an essay on “Protozoa and diseases” 10
b. What are coral reefs? Give an account of various forms of coral reefs.6
c. Coelenterates show some resemblances with Porifera. Discuss briefly 4

Q2: a Give an account of canal system in sponges. 10
b. what is adaptation? Briefly discuss parasitic adaptations in platyhelminthes.
c. define the following terms. 4 marks.
1. Polymorphism
2. Metamerism
3. parasitism
4. osmoregulation.

Q3 Describe water vascular system of Echinodermata 10 marks.
b. Give an account of human diseases caused by nematodes. 7 marks.
c. what is conjugation? Briefly discuss its significance 3 marks

Q4. write short notes on:
1. torsion in gastropods
2. flame cells
3. spicules
4.coelom.

SECTION II

Q5 a write an essay on flight adaptations of birds. 10 marks
b. what is cleavage? Describe its types , with example found in chordates. 6 marks.
c. what are the functions of blood. 4 marks.

Q6. what is placenta? Give its classification in mammals according to the mode of implantation.
b. describe various types of heart found in vertebrates 8marks
c.give classification of vertibrate eggs according to the quantity of yolk they contain 4 marks.

Q7 write short notes on

1. uriniferous tubule of a mammal
2. neuron
3. function of skin
4. structure of bone.

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS
IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2008.

Zoology II

Do only four questions from this section.

1. a Give an account of mechanism by which living cell is believed to synthesize proteins. 12 marks
b. explain how CO2 is transported by the blood? 8 marks

2. a describe structure and function of cell membrane 12 marks
b. how is the nerve impulse generated and conducted? 8 marks

3. a Describe the prophase I of meiosis in detail with the help of labeled diagram 10 marks.
b. give an account of digestion of food in mammals 10 marks.

4. describe the structure and function of E.R 10 marks
b. What is hemoglobin? How it carries oxygen in the blood? What happen when carbon monoxide combine with hemoglobin? 7 marks.
c. differentiate bw pinocytosis and phagocytosis. 3 marks

5. Give an account of mendal law of segregation with example 10 marks
b. what is vestigal organ ? presence of vestigial organ is taken as an evidance of evolution discuss 10 marks.

6. what are biochemical cycles? Describe the carbon cycle in detail.
b. Given an account of Lamarck’s theory of evolution. 10 marks.

7 Write short notes on
1. Natural selection
2. Mutation
3 Harmones
4. chromosomal aberrations.

CSS EXAM PAST PAPER COMPUTER SCIENCE PAPER 2009

FEDERAL PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR RECRUITMENT TO POSTS

IN BPS – 17 UNDER THE FEDERAL GOVERNMENT, 2009.

COMPUTER SCIENCE PAPER

TIME ALLOWED: (PART-I) 30 MINUTES, MAXIMUM MARKS: 20
(PART-II) 2 HOURS & 30 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS: 80

NOTE: (i) First attempt PART-I (MCQ) on separate Answer Sheet which shall be taken back after 30 minutes.
(ii) Overwriting/cutting of the options/answers will not be given credit.

PART – I (MCQ)

COMPULSORY

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)

(i) AX register is also known as:
(a) Accumulator
(b) Collector
(c) Distributor
(d) Counter
(e) None of these

(ii) In the Base + Offset addressing, Offset address is also known as:
(a) Physical Address
(b) Logical Address
(c) Actual Address
(d) Instruction Address
(e) None of these

(iii) The technique for allowing a unit to check the status of another independently function unit is known as?
(a) Interrupt
(b) System call
(c) Polling
(d) Trape
(e) None of these

(iv) The method for storing data temporarily such that the input-output of the same job is overlapped with its own processing, is known as:
(a) Spooling
(b) Contention
(c) I/O wait
(d) Buffering
(e) None of these

(v) The DMA that uses Busses when CPU is not using them is termed as:
(a) Shared DMA
(b) Cycle Stealing
(c) Channel
(d) Transparent DMA
(e) None of these

(vi) _________ Scheduler deals with the decision as to whether to admit another new job to the system.
(a) High Level
(b) Medium Level
(c) Low Level
(d) Short term
(e) None of these

(vii) When the process is in the states of Blocked Suspended or Ready Suspended, its relevant data is
stored in:
(a) Main Memory
(b) Hard Disk
(c) Magnetic Tape
(d) Buffer
(e) None of these

(viii) Priority, P = (Time Waiting + Run Time) / Run Time is used to calculate priority in __________ scheduling algorithm:
(a) Shortest Job First
(b) Priority Scheduling
(c) Longest Wait First
(d) Highest Response Ratio Next
(e) None of these

(ix) HDLC Protocol stands for:
(a) High-Level Data Link Control
(b) High Level Development Protocol
(c) Huge Level Data Link Control
(d) High Development Level Control
(e) None of these

(x) _________ is the generic name for a set of standards issued by the International CommunicationsStandards Body CCITT, designed to support Message Handling Systems; i.e. Electronic Mail.
(a) TCP/IP
(b) ISDN
(c) X.400
(d) X.25
(e) None of these

(xi) ________ layer is responsible for the transfer of a packet of data along one link in the network. It organizes data into frames and detects errors in transmission.
(a) Physical Layer
(b) Data Link Layer
(c) Network Layer
(d) Transport Layer
(e) None of these

(xii) Encryption is the conversion of data in some intelligible format into an unintelligible format called _________ to prevent the data from being understood if read by an unauthorized party.
(a) Clear Text
(b) Encrypted Text
(c) Cipher Text
(d) Coded Text
(e) None of these

(xiii) Binary search requires about ______ comparisons with an initial list of 1,000,000 elements.
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 35
(d) 100
(e) None of these

(xiv) A _________ header list is a header list where the last node contains the null pointer.
(a) Grounded
(b) Circular
(c) One way
(d) Rooted
(e) None of these

(xv) ________ are small applications that are accessed on an internet server, transported over the internet, automatically installed and run as part of a web document.
(a) Applets
(b) Java Bean
(c) Sockets
(d) Java Component
(e) None of these

(xvi) AWT stands for:
(a) Abstract Window Technique
(b) Abstract Window Toolkit
(c) Actual Window Technique
(d) Added Window Toolkit
(e) None of these

(xvii) GIF images can have only upto _______ colors.
(a) 128
(b) 256
(c) 512
(d) 1024
(e) None of these

(xviii) ________ is stored on a client and contains state information of the website visited.
(a) Cookies
(b) Servelet
(c) History
(d) Resident Page
(e) None of these

(xix) In software Engineering KPA denotes.
(a) Key Process Audit
(b) Key Process Area
(c) Key Process Analysis
(d) Key Problem Area
(e) None of these

(xx) The ________ Process Model defines a series of events that will trigger transitions from state to state for each of software engineering activities.
(a) Spiral
(b) Operational
(c) RAD
(d) Concurrent Development
(e) None of these

PART – II

(i) PART-II is to be attempted on the separate Answer Book.
(ii) Attempt ONLY FOUR questions from PART-II, selecting at least ONE question from each SECTION. All questions carry EQUAL marks.
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be considered.

SECTION – I

Q.2. Explain ANY FOUR. (20)
(i) Cache Memory
(ii) Static & Dynamic RAM
(iii) Instruction Cycle
(iv) Buses & their types
(v) Segment Registers
(vi) Instruction Pipelining

Q.3. (a) Describe briefly five state process lifecycle (6)
(b) Explain multi level feedback queue scheduling algorithm. (6)
(c) Describe briefly different communication channels (8)

SECTION - II

Q.4. (a) What are Virtual Functions? And how they can be utilized for polymorphism? Use C++ for writing example program. (10)
(b) Explain with examples ANY TWO: (10)
(i) Inheritance & Aggregation (ii) Data Hiding & Encapsulation
(iii) Constructors & Destructors (iv) Class, Object and Abstraction

Q.5. (a) Write and explain algorithm for Binary Search. (8)
(b) Explain ANY TRHEE: (12)
(i) Stack & Queue
(ii) Tree & Graph
(iii) Linked List & Array
(iv) Algorithm & Program
(v) Complexity of Algorithm

Q.6. (a) Explain the terminologies of Process, Methods and Tools. (6)
(b) What is Software Process Model? Explain Spiral Process Model. (14)

SECTION – III

Q.7. (a) What is a Database? Explain and differentiate Relational Database Model from the other Database Models. (10)
(b) Explain with example Entity Relationship Diagram. (10)

Q.8. Explain ANY FOUR: (20)

(i) Computer Graphics
(ii) Pixel Art
(iii) Vector Graphics
(iv) Computer Animation
(v) Rendering
(vi) 2D & 3D Graphics

********************